CPTIA Certification Exam Guide + Practice Questions Updated 2026

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Comprehensive CPTIA certification exam guide covering exam overview, skills measured, preparation tips, and practice questions with detailed explanations.

CPTIA Exam Guide

This CPTIA exam focuses on practical knowledge and exam application scenarios related to the subject area. It evaluates your ability to understand core concepts, apply best practices, and make informed decisions in realistic situations rather than relying solely on memorization.

This page provides a structured exam guide, including exam focus areas, skills measured, preparation recommendations, and practice questions with explanations to support effective learning.

 

Exam Overview

The CPTIA exam typically emphasizes how concepts are used in professional environments, testing both theoretical understanding and practical problem-solving skills.

 

Skills Measured

  • Understanding of core concepts and terminology
  • Ability to apply knowledge to practical scenarios
  • Analysis and evaluation of solution options
  • Identification of best practices and common use cases

 

Preparation Tips

Successful candidates combine conceptual understanding with hands-on practice. Reviewing measured skills and working through scenario-based questions is strongly recommended.

 

Practice Questions for CPTIA Exam

The following practice questions are designed to reinforce key CPTIA exam concepts and reflect common scenario-based decision points tested in the certification.

Question#1

An XYZ organization hired Mr. Andrews, a threat analyst. In order to identify the threats and mitigate the effect of such threats, Mr. Andrews was asked to perform threat modeling. During the process of threat modeling, he collected important information about the treat actor and characterized the analytic behavior of the adversary that includes technological details, goals, and motives that can be useful in building a strong countermeasure.
What stage of the threat modeling is Mr .
Andrews currently in?

A. System modeling
B. Threat determination and identification
C. Threat profiling and attribution
D. Threat ranking

Explanation:
During the threat modeling process, Mr. Andrews is in the stage of threat profiling and attribution, where he is collecting important information about the threat actor and characterizing the analytic behavior of the adversary. This stage involves understanding the technological details, goals, motives, and potential capabilities of the adversaries, which is essential for building effective countermeasures .
Threat profiling and attribution help in creating a detailed picture of the adversary, contributing to a more focused and effective defense strategy.
References:
"The Art of Threat Profiling," by John Pirc, SANS Institute Reading Room
"Threat Modeling: Designing for Security," by Adam Shostack

Question#2

Which of the following tools helps incident handlers to view the file system, retrieve deleted data, perform timeline analysis, web artifacts, etc., during an incident response process?

A. Autopsy
B. netstat
C. Process Explorer
D. nblslal

Explanation:
Autopsy is a digital forensics platform and graphical interface to The Sleuth Kit and other digital forensics tools. It is used by law enforcement, military, and corporate examiners to investigate what happened on a computer. Autopsy enables incident handlers to view the file system, retrieve deleted data, perform timeline analysis, and analyze web artifacts, among other functionalities. This tool is particularly useful during the incident response process for conducting in-depth investigations into the nature of a security incident, identifying the methods used by attackers, and recovering lost or compromised data.
References: The EC-Council's Certified Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) program covers digital forensic tools and techniques, highlighting the capabilities of Autopsy for supporting comprehensive incident investigations and response activities.
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Question#3

Eric works as a system administrator at ABC organization and previously granted several users with access privileges to the organizations systems with unlimited permissions. These privileged users could prospectively misuse their rights unintentionally, maliciously, or could be deceived by attackers that could trick them to perform malicious activities.
Which of the following guidelines would help incident handlers eradicate insider attacks by privileged users?

A. Do not allow administrators to use unique accounts during the installation process
B. Do not enable default administrative accounts to ensure accountability
C. Do not control the access to administrator ano privileged users
D. Do not use encryption methods to prevent, administrators and privileged users from accessing backup tapes and sensitive information

Explanation:
Not enabling default administrative accounts is crucial to ensuring accountability and minimizing the risk of insider attacks by privileged users. By disabling or renaming default accounts, organizations can better track the actions performed by individual administrators, reducing the risk of unauthorized or malicious activities going unnoticed. This practice is part of a broader approach to privilege management that includes limiting permissions to the minimum necessary and monitoring the use of administrative privileges.
References: The CREST CPTIA program emphasizes the importance of managing privileged access and ensuring accountability among users with elevated permissions to protect against insider threats and misuse of administrative rights.

Question#4

Clark, a professional hacker, exploited the web application of a target organization by tampering the form and parameter values. He successfully exploited the web application and gained access to the information assets of the organization.
Identify the vulnerability in the web application exploited by the attacker.

A. Broken access control
B. Security misconfiguration
C. SQL injection
D. Sensitive data exposure

Explanation:
The vulnerability exploited by Clark through tampering with form and parameter values to gain unauthorized access to information assets is indicative of Broken Access Control. Broken Access Control vulnerabilities occur when a web application does not properly enforce restrictions on what authenticated users are allowed to do. Attackers can exploit these vulnerabilities to access unauthorized functionality or data, such as accessing other users' accounts, viewing sensitive files, and modifying other users’ data.

Question#5

Which of the following port scanning techniques involves resetting the TCP connection between client and server abruptly before completion of the three-way handshake signals, making the connection half-open?

A. Null scan
B. Full connect scan
C. Stealth scan
D. Xmas scan

Explanation:
The port scanning technique that involves resetting the TCP connection between the client and server abruptly before the completion of the three-way handshake, thereby leaving the connection half-open, is known as a Stealth scan (also referred to as a SYN scan). This technique allows the scanner to inquire about the status of a port without establishing a full TCP connection, making the scan less detectible to intrusion detection systems and less likely to be logged by the target. It's a method used to discreetly discover open ports on a target machine without establishing a full connection that would be visible in logs.
References: CREST materials often cover different types of network scanning techniques, including Stealth scans, explaining their methodologies, purposes, and how they can be detected or mitigated

Disclaimer

This page is for educational and exam preparation reference only. It is not affiliated with CREST, CREST Certified, or the official exam provider. Candidates should refer to official documentation and training for authoritative information.

Exam Code: CPTIAQ & A:  135  Q&As Updated:  2026-11-02

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